Question 850

Question contributed by Frank Gaillard ◉ ◈

Disclosures and question data

A young woman with a history of schizophrenia presents for an MRI examination of the pituitary gland to assess for the presence of a microadenoma as the cause for increased prolactin. She has had a normal CT of the brain. Which of the following is most accurate?

a non-functioning adenoma usually results in substantial elevation of prolactin due to stalk effect.

an elevated prolactin level of less than ten times normal is unlikely to be due to a microadenoma.

in this patient, a dopamine antagonist is a likely cause of mildly elevated prolactin levels.

in this setting, any area of relatively delayed enhancement within the pituitary on dynamic enhanced sequences likely represents a microadenoma.

Skip question

Question 850

Disclosures and question data

Articles

By Section:

By System:

Cases

Radiopaedia.org

Sign up

Question 850

Disclosures and question data

Articles

By Section:

By System:

Cases

Radiopaedia.org