Derek Smith ◉

A 20-year-old woman is being investigated for epilepsy and has the following MRI performed. The most likely region of seizure activity is the: 

A 16-year-old woman has MRI findings compatible with right parietal focal cortical dysplasia. A hyperintense FLAIR tract is seen between the abnormal cortex and the ventricle. What type of FCD is this in the Blumcke classification system?

What is the most likely cause of this 25-year-old patient's seizures?

A 40-year-old woman with medically refractory epilepsy has an MRI. This shows a T2W hyperintense region at the right posterior insula, which incompletely suppresses on FLAIR at the periphery. There is no enhancement following intravenous contrast administration. What is the most likely lesion causing this patient's seizures?

This 50-year-old man experienced neck pain, with left pupillary abnormality and swallowing difficulty. An MRI is performed a few days later, with the T1W fat saturated sequence confirming the left internal carotid artery dissection. What is the hyperintensity on the T1FS sequence?

This 18-year-old suffered a head and cervical spine injury after crashing his mountain bike off a jump. He is quadriplegic.

CT and MRI were performed.

What is the WORST prognostic sign in this case?

A lesion is observed in the thoracic spine. There is abnormal signal in the spinal cord (which narrows at the level of the lesion) with expansion through the neural foramen. This is best described as:

What is the most common type of adult intramedullary (spinal) tumor?

Which of these extramedullary lesions are commonly seen with vertebral segmentation abnormalities?

This adult patient with reduced upper and lower limb sensation and balance has this finding on their MRI cervical spine. What next investigation would be most useful?

This young adult sustained a high energy head injury. From this sagittal STIR MRI cervical spine sequence, can you tell the clinical team why the patient is quadriplegic?